[B-Greek] John 8:58 PPA???

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Sun Jan 30 22:41:50 EST 2005


@MAKARIOIOIPRAEIS:

> I've heard it explained that the EGW EIMI here is a "predicate absolute" and 
> therefore must always be translated in the present tense I AM, 
> 
> "The Witnesses may attempt to argue, using the footnote  to John 8:58 in the 
> Kingdom Interlinear Translation (or Appendix 6F in the NWT with References) 
> that because "before Abraham was" is an aorist infinitive clause (meaning that 
> the "before" implies an indefinite action, i.e., does not specify that Christ 
> has always existed), ego eimi should be translated "I have been."
> This argument can be refuted by noting that eimi appears in this verse in 
> what is called a predicate absolute  (a sentence structure in which the 
> copulative verb is used without an object or complement ); this means that eimi 
> must be 
> translated in the present tense ("I AM") rather than simply referring to the 
> present statement of a past action ("I have been").
> The Watchman Expositor: Vol. 16, No. 3, 1999 

Kelton: Hey thanks for the info, the only problem is that I think grammatically this could be a PPA.  Because I believe that BDF (along with other grammers) has it as one, the only problem for me is that it does not seem to fit into the context of the passage. I could double check the arguement if you want me to.

And the one guy who is argueing that it is a PPA thinks that even Ps 89:2 could be one as well.  But that does not seem to fit with the Hebrew

I don't own a BDF, ( I am planning on buying one later) so I could be mispeaking, but i believe during Jason's arguements he uses it.  



--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net






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