[B-Greek] John 1:47 ALHQWS

Iver Larsen iver at larsen.dk
Wed Jun 15 12:25:06 EDT 2005


> > >
> Is there something wrong with "indeed" other than that it appears in the
> KJV?

If you could translate the sentence as it stands in KJV and RSV into
ordinary English, I, too, would have a chance to understand it. As it is, it
makes no sense to me to say that "He is an American indeed". If you say "He
is indeed an American", I understand it as a confirmation or refutation to
someone who had claimed that he was not an American, but that can hardly be
the intended sense in John 1:47. "He is indeed an Israelite"??? No one has
denied that he is an Israelite.
On the other hand, if you say "He is indeed an honest Israelite," it makes
good sense to me.

Iver Larsen





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