[B-Greek] 1 Tim 5:20

Adam adambensaid at gmail.com
Sat Jun 25 16:57:34 EDT 2005


Hi all,

We recently went through the qualifications of elders and deacons in the 
church and got divided of the phrasing in v.20 regarding the public rebuke 
of the elder in case of sin. 

The word "sin" is in the present tense, which indicates an on-going, linear 
action (unrepented sin). This is supported by all the commentaries that I 
have been able to find. Even if we take this present as a gnomic present, it 
seems as though the meaning will not change.

Ralph Earle (Expositors'), Quin & Wacker (CC), Mounce (WBC), John Calvin, 
Stott, Liefeld (NIVAC) and Fee (NBC) all agree that no rebuke is necessary 
unless there is persistent ongoing unrepentant sin. Furthermore, most of 
them make a point to say that the whole process should be kept as private as 
possible, and nothing should be said publicly unless it is absolutely 
unavoidable (because of unrepentance and continuation of the sin). 

In Stott's words: 
*"Such a public rebuke, though an effective deterrent, must be the last 
resort, however. It is a safe rule that private sins should be dealt with 
privately, and only public sins publicly. It is neither right nor necessary 
to make what is private public, until all of the possibilities have been 
exhausted."*

Can anyone shed some light on this issue as my knowledge of Greek grammar is 
at a novice level. 

Thank you,

-- 
Your Brother in Christ,
Adam



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