[B-Greek] John 10:17f LAMBANW

Eric Inman eric.inman at wescorpflex.com
Tue Mar 1 07:54:11 EST 2005


I view these 3 instances as having roughly the same meaning, namely
"receive." However, I think the specific meanings here have to be determined
in conjunction with the respective objects (YUCHN & ENTOLHN). The use of
constrast also clarifies the meaning (QEINAI YUCHN versus LABEIN YUCHN). In
other words, the word by itself doesn't mean very much. In general, John
seems to love to use the same word from many different angles, and it
strikes me as being not for the purpose of narrowing down a meaning but
rather for expanding the audience's thinking about a matter, for making
connections between ideas they might not otherwise have connected.

Eric Inman
Shoreview

-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of Beata Urbanek
Sent: Tuesday, March 01, 2005 5:17 AM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] John 10:17f LAMBANW


Dear All,

I'm wondering if the verb LAMBANW which occurs 3 times in John 10:17-18 has
got one or two meanings there.
Twice Jesus says about LAMBANEIN his YUCH and at the end: TAUTHN THN ENTOLEH
ELABON PARA TOU PATROS MOU.

Translations usually is: take up his life; receive command. Can they be both
translated: "receive", although it's not the first meaning of the verb?
For translating "receive one's life again": Jesus has been given everything
by His Father, which is also stated in the idea of receiving a command here.
Against: in LXX LAMBANEIN YUCHN means takes someone's life, kill so the idea
of one's autority of someone else's life. Jesus uses it in 1st sing. so He
has an authority (EXOUSIA) over His own life, so He can take it, not
received.

Would you also say thai hINA has not its purpose menaing in: EGW TIQHMI THN
YUCHN MOU hINA LABW AUTHN?

Beata Urbanek
frustrated student grateful for any help
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