[B-Greek] ARSENOKOITHS used of women
Ann Nyland
nyland at tsn.cc
Wed Mar 16 00:39:24 EST 2005
It occurs with women as the receptors in Migne Patrologia Graeca 82. The 6th
c. astrologer Rhetorius Aegyptius also used the term as women with the
receptors.
Ann Nyland
----- Original Message -----
From: "Eric Weiss" <papaweiss1 at yahoo.com>
To: "b-greek" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, March 16, 2005 1:03 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] ARSENOKOITHS: Did I get this right?
> The Old Testament seems to prohibit sexual acts between two males (indeed,
> the term
> ARSENOKOITHS, if coined by Paul, may have come from the LXX of Leviticus
> 18:22, I
> understand). I'm not referring to the Sodom and Gomorrah passages in
> Genesis and Ezekiel
> which have been bandied back and forth elsewhere as to what they are
> referring to, just to the
> seeming explicit prohibition in Leviticus 18 in both the Hebrew and LXX.
>
> So ... in the midst of this discussion we're having, is there sufficient
> lexical or semantic
> knowledge of the meanings or likely meanings of ARSENOKOITHS and MALAKOS
> for us to
> conclude that Paul was referring to sexual acts between males when he used
> these terms? I'm
> not asking whether or not the term "homosexual" is a proper translation of
> one or both of these
> terms, as that seems to raise the issue of whether or not "homosexual" as
> understood by us
> is a proper term for 1st-century views and mindsets. What I'm asking is:
> Is it proper and likely to translate these words (or at least
> ARSENOKOITHS) as "a man who has sex with another
> man"? And if so, is there enough knowledge of the term(s) to say that it
> refers to 1) any man who has or had sex at any time with another man?
> 2) Or just to men who regularly have sex with other men?
> 3) Or just to men who have sex exclusively with other men?
>
>
>
> Eric S. Weiss
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