[B-Greek] Ephesians 1:20 Why is DEXIA feminine?
David Bielby
dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
Mon Mar 28 09:36:39 EST 2005
Thank you Ronald! I see in Matthew 5:29 and 30 where the shift is made in
gender because of KEIR (hand). KEIR isn't in the text here, but must be
the implied meaning hence the feminine gender? Is there another word that
could be implied?
I so appreciate this forum.
David Bielby
Pastor
dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
www.bloomingtonvineyard.org
-----Original Message-----
From: Ronald Jones [mailto:chap8med at optonline.net]
Sent: Monday, March 28, 2005 8:06 AM
To: David Bielby
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Ephesians 1:20 Why is DEXIA feminine?
David,
I'm sure others will response, but the adjective here is used absolutely,
with the feminine noun KEIR, KEIROS to be understood (not sure if that's the
right translateration for B-Greek; the first letter is a chi). Not unusual;
BDAG has a whole section on this under DEXIOS.
Peace!
Ronald Jones
St. Paul Lutheran, Raritan, NJ
----- Original Message -----
From: "David Bielby" <dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org>
To: "Big Greeks" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Monday, March 28, 2005 8:44 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Ephesians 1:20 Why is DEXIA feminine?
> In Ephesians 1:20 why is DEXIA feminine?
>
>
>
> hNV EVHRGHSEV EV TW KRISTW EGEIRAS AUTOV EK VEKRWV KAI KAQISAS EV DEXIA
> AUTOU EV TOIS EPOURAVIOIS
>
> Eph 1:20
>
>
>
> David Bielby
>
> dbielby at bloomingtonvineyard.org
>
>
>
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