[B-Greek] Help!
Ron Ross
rross at irazu.net
Tue May 24 04:00:29 EDT 2005
I think your reference is from Matt. 16.13 rather than 12.13. The use of
the infinitive EINAI is due to a syntactic rule known as 'subject-to-object
raising'. The subject of a dependent clause is moved to the position of
object of the main clause. The dependent clause verb, having been deprived
of its subject, infinitivizes. As example from English would be: "I
believed that Peter WAS smarter than that" becoming "I believed Peter TO BE
smarter than that.
Ronald Ross
Department of Linguistics
University of Costa Rica
UBS translation consultant
-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of JEvans1007 at aol.com
Sent: Monday, May 23, 2005 8:57 PM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] Help!
In the workbook I am using to study Greek we are giving partial verses from
the new testament and other places to translate.
I was trying to translate TINA LEGOUSIN OI ANQRWPOI EINAI TON UION TOU
ANQRWPOU? I was/am having problem with the infinitive EINAI. As far as I
know it
means 'to be.' I was unable to make a reasonable statement in translation
in
terms of English grammar without translating EINAI as I would if it read
ESTIN.
The sentence comes from the last part of Matt: 12:13. I went there in the
NASB translation of the text and what they did was translate EINAI as ESTIN
using the English is (ESTIN). Why does the present active infinitive
translate as
the third person singular present? Is there something I have missed?
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