[B-Greek] GENNAW
william zeitler
william at faithfulbible.com
Fri May 27 10:09:05 EDT 2005
> They are simply the same word- one now obsolete in English and the other
> not.
Hmm... are they REALLY "the same word"?
'Beget': to father or sire.
'Birth': a. The emergence and separation of offspring from the body of the
mother.
(http://www.thefreedictionary.com)
So are you suggesting that it is semantically equivalent to translate Matt 1
as:
"Abraham gave birth to Isaac,
and Isaac gave birth to Jacob...
We DO make a distinction in English (not present in the Greek) between the
male and female activities. Obviously context in Matt 1 requires the 'male'
mode.
So why choose the 'female' mode for translating John 3 instead of the 'male'?
Is it arbitrary, or is their some exegetical basis for preferring
'born' (female) over 'begotten' (male)? (Or 'to sire' or 'to father' if you
prefer.)
william zeitler
On Friday 27 May 2005 06:51 am, you wrote:
> william zeitler wrote:
> >So, why 'born' and not 'begotten'?
>
> They are simply the same word- one now obsolete in English and the other
> not. Both are passive and both are appropriate for the Greek verb as
> renderings. Ya just don't hear folk walking around today saying "I was
> begotten on August 8, 1950".
>
> Best
>
> Jim
-------------------------------------------------------
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list