[B-Greek] Genitive vs Adjective
Joseph Weaks
j.weaks at tcu.edu
Sat May 28 03:20:18 EDT 2005
On May 28, 2005, at 2:03 AM, James Tauber wrote:
> ...My quibble with statements like "moving a word or phrase ... does
> not ... alter the syntax" is simply because, to me, that statement is
> false by definition - it has nothing to do with the particulars of any
> language.
This is a good point, James. Namely, that the terminology is used
differently. I agree with you that none of us has interest in debating
whether we "call" something syntax or not.
In linguistics, syntax isn't reduced to simply word order, of course.
So, perhaps I was following that thought to see that some word order
issues have exactly null impact regarding syntax. Course, that may be
a stretch.
Joe Weaks
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Rev. Joseph A. Weaks
Ph.D. (Cand.), Brite Divinity School, Ft. Worth
j.weaks at tcu.edu
The Macintosh Biblioblog http://macbiblioblog.blogspot.com
"All things Macintosh for the Bible Scholar"
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