[B-Greek] GENNAW
Don Doherty
ddoherty at powerup.com.au
Sat May 28 03:47:02 EDT 2005
I hesitate to join this discussion as I may be "off limits", but I remember reading some time ago comment by a scholar (whose name I forget) to the effect that because the original language of the conversation between Nicodemus and Jesus would most likely have been Aramaic, the confusion or misunderstanding of Nicodemus could not really have happened as reported in John 3. That is, the probable original Aramaic term translated as the Greek adverb ANWQEN in the phrase EAN MH TIS GENNHQHi ANWQEN would not have supported the ambiguity inherent in the double meaning of "from above/again", but would have unambiguously meant "from above". Any confusion or misunderstanding therefore arises out of the use of the Greek ANWQEN rather than over the meaning of GENNAW. If that's a fair comment (and I have no way of judging this), doesn't it make part of the discussion about GENNAW somewhat irrelevant? I'd be grateful for clarification on this issue, as it's lodged at the back of my mind as an unresolved question for years.
Don Doherty
Alexandra Headland
QLD Australia
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