[B-Greek] 1st John 2:22

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Tue Nov 1 10:56:05 EST 2005


@ Cirk, Dr.Conrad, and Richard

That is fine, I was just making sure I was reading that right.  I guess the big difference in what I said and what Richard said and Dr.Conrad agreed with was the use of hO APNOUMENOS, Richard said...

"Who is the liar [who makes this denial]: "Jesus is not the Christ"?

he took hO APNOUMENOS as "who makes this denial."  

Normally, I always translate articular participles as "the one who does such and such."  

with hO APNOUMENOS, I would render it as "[the one who denies] that Jesus is the Christ." Instead of "who makes this denial."

Taking this along with what BDAG was saying ( I am glad I was reading that correctly) about it possible being a double negative, I just assumed you dropped the second negation from the translation.

Although I guess it all ends up saying the same thing.  But I wanted to clarify what I was thinking.
--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> --- kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote: 
> > What does BDAG means when it says on pg 132 of 
> > APNEOMAI. 
> > 
> > 1 Jn 2:22 w. hOTI foll. : a. hOTI 'IHS. OUK ESTIN hO 
> > CHRISTOS 
> > " the neg. is redundant as Demosth 9, 54...." 
> > 
> > -- 
> > Kelton Graham 
> > KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net 
> 
> The reference seems to be to Demosthenes' Thrid 
> Phillipic section 54 
> 
> but I don't have time to exaime that passage myself. 
> A purely redundant OUK is possible, I suppose, but I 
> think Dr. Conrad's explanation is probably better. 
> Not that the meaning is in doubt in any case. 
> 
> Cirk R. Bejnar 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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