[B-Greek] 1st John 2:22
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Tue Nov 1 10:56:05 EST 2005
@ Cirk, Dr.Conrad, and Richard
That is fine, I was just making sure I was reading that right. I guess the big difference in what I said and what Richard said and Dr.Conrad agreed with was the use of hO APNOUMENOS, Richard said...
"Who is the liar [who makes this denial]: "Jesus is not the Christ"?
he took hO APNOUMENOS as "who makes this denial."
Normally, I always translate articular participles as "the one who does such and such."
with hO APNOUMENOS, I would render it as "[the one who denies] that Jesus is the Christ." Instead of "who makes this denial."
Taking this along with what BDAG was saying ( I am glad I was reading that correctly) about it possible being a double negative, I just assumed you dropped the second negation from the translation.
Although I guess it all ends up saying the same thing. But I wanted to clarify what I was thinking.
--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
-------------- Original message --------------
> --- kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote:
> > What does BDAG means when it says on pg 132 of
> > APNEOMAI.
> >
> > 1 Jn 2:22 w. hOTI foll. : a. hOTI 'IHS. OUK ESTIN hO
> > CHRISTOS
> > " the neg. is redundant as Demosth 9, 54...."
> >
> > --
> > Kelton Graham
> > KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
>
> The reference seems to be to Demosthenes' Thrid
> Phillipic section 54
>
> but I don't have time to exaime that passage myself.
> A purely redundant OUK is possible, I suppose, but I
> think Dr. Conrad's explanation is probably better.
> Not that the meaning is in doubt in any case.
>
> Cirk R. Bejnar
>
>
>
>
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