[B-Greek] 1 John 2:22
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Wed Nov 2 07:59:54 EST 2005
@Clare Arnold
I think you could get away with that translation, since I think that is the basic idea behind the passage. However, I would take hO APOUMENOS as a substantive meaning " the one who denies." And just drop off the second negative OUK.
Who is the liar, if not the one who denies that Jesus is the Messiah. I personally think that would be the best translation.
--
Kelton Graham
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net
-------------- Original message --------------
> Thank you to everyone for your help with 1 John 2 :22. Living in Australia,
> I was asleep when the discussion took place! I've considered all the
> replies and now have another question.
>
> If we look at this verse only grammatically, without any theological
> assumptions, could the verse be translated as:
>
> "Who is the liar if it is not the one who makes this denial: 'Jesus is not
> the Christ'?"
>
> Cheers,
> Clare Arnold
>
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