[B-Greek] Translating Mark 1:8 (revised)
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at ioa.com
Thu Nov 3 14:52:25 EST 2005
Dan, you've made perfectly clear that you intend to persist with this
"interlinear" mode of transliteration despite the fact that several
respondents have called attention to its inaccurate representation of
the sense of the Greek. So here "immerse" for "BAPTIZW" has been
faulted by several respondents as inaccurate certainy for the second
verb form here (BAPTISEI), and while you might think "a Holy Spirit"
accurately represents the Greek text PNEUMATI hAGIWi, what you're
deriving from the Greek is pidgin-English rather than an equivalent
of what the Greek text says. What's wrong with this "interlinear"
style of "translation" is that it's based on an assumption that the
"forest" of a sequence of discourse is no less and no more than but
exactly equal to the sum of the "trees" of words inside that
sequence. I think that's been stated in different ways in several of
the responses to your idiosyncratic renderings of Marcan texts, but I
felt it was worth reiterating "yet once more again," despite the fact
that you've made it obvious that you intend to go on doing it this way.
On Nov 3, 2005, at 2:14 PM, Dan Gleason wrote:
> Translating Mark 1:8 (revised)
>
> EGW EBAPTISA UMAS UDATI
> I immersed you in Water ...
>
> AUTOS DE BAPTISEI UMAS EN PNEUMATI AGIWi
> but he will-immerse you in <a-Holy Spirit > correct to "a Holy
> Spirit." .
>
> Is this translation accurate?
> ______________________
>
> Based on the feedback I have recieved re PNEUMATI AGIWi (an
> antherous noun modified by an adjective) my new translation is "a
> Holy Spirit."
> In all similar circumstances I will never use "a-" and connect it
> to the noun again.
>
> However, I don't think there is anything wrong with my use of the
> hyphen for embedded words.
> I don't see anything wrong with this interlinear approach.
>
> I have read the feedback about why using "the" instead of "a" with
> HS is preferred but I am not yet convinced.
>
> When I first posted, I gave the following reason for using the
> indefinite article:
> The term Holy Spirit is being anartharously introduced for the
> first time.
> Something like a character in a play who is making his first
> appearance.
> The audience who are "in the know" know it refers to God ... but
> for the
> pagans in the audience ...
> Is it possible that an indefinite translation was intended until the
> character was more fully developed in subsequent verses?
>
> Is there anything wrong with my reasoning here?
>
> Dan Gleason
>
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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