[B-Greek] Rev 20:4 PEPELEKISMENWN?

craig newsgroupstuff at people.net.au
Fri Nov 4 23:54:00 EST 2005


Hi all. I've just got a question about understanding PEPELEKISMENWN Perfect
Passive Participle.

I wonder if even the translation of the participle as "those who had been
beheaded" maybe forces too much time aspect onto the meaning. Perhaps it
should be just "the beheaded ones" (afterall, beheading probably needs to
have a Perfect sense). Perhaps it could be used without reference to WHEN
they were beheaded, only noting that the outcome that they were beheaded. In
this sense it could be people at any time in history who were (will be)
beheaded. John sees their souls.

So does the Greek use of Perfect particple *necessarily* mean that the
beheading must occur before the thousand years?

At the moment I will try to keep from too much interpretation, and leave it
at that question, just about use of Perfect Participle.

Thanks!

--
Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia 




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