[B-Greek] Rev 20:4 PEPELEKISMENWN?

craig newsgroupstuff at people.net.au
Sat Nov 5 01:35:40 EST 2005


> > So does the Greek use of Perfect particple *necessarily* 
> mean that the 
> > beheading must occur before the thousand years?
> 
> The short answer is YES. How can they reign on the basis of their  
> martyrdom if they haven't been martyred yet?

Hmm. Maybe I better tell you more of what I am thinking, so you can properly
evaluate...

I think Rev 20:4 could be paraphrased as follows:

"I saw there was in fact sovereign and authoritative rule (despite all the
trouble that is happening to Christians). And who should I see there but
even some of our Christians who had been killed for bearing witness to
Jesus. The same ones who remained faithful to God, despite the threatenings
of the enemy. In fact, they have been alive and reigning with Christ for the
whole of the thousand years."

Instead of saying the reigning must occur after the beheading (or because of
it) I suggest maybe the reiging is just CONTRASTED with the beheading. Rev
20:4 may well just be saying what Paul says in Eph 2:5-6 and Col 3:1. Even
though Christians may physically die at the hands of the enemy, they already
have a life that began before that which can never be taken away, and that
life consists in ruling with Christ, over-ruling whatever the enemies of
Christ may do (cf Psalm 2).

So perhaps I can say it like this: the emphasis is on WHO is reigning (= the
beheaded) not WHEN they are reigning (eg after beheading). Perhaps there is
no intended time sequence in use of the Perfect Participle.

Does the Greek allow for this interpretation? Otherwise is there a better
way to describe those beheaded, than using a perfect participle (I expect
present participle would not make sense with such a verb)?

(Actually I would see a similar usage in the Aorist participle of Heb 4:3
PISTEUSANTES, emphasising WHO enters the rest, not WHEN the rest is
entered.)

--
Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia 





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