[B-Greek] TELOS in Romans 10:4?
Iver Larsen
iver at larsen.dk
Wed Nov 9 03:33:41 EST 2005
> Compare the constructions and vocabularies of Romans
> 10:4 and Romans 1:16b:
>
> TELOS GAR NOMOU
> CRISTOS
> EIS DIKAIOSUNH
> PANTI TWTi PISTEUONTI
>
> DUNAMIS GAR QEOU
> ESTIN (i.e., TO EUAGGELION)
> EIS SWTHRIAN
> PANTI TWi PISTEUONTI
>
> I've played with trying to translate them both so the
> meaning of EIS+ and what PANTI TWi PISTEUONTI relates
> to is the same in both verses:
>
> "For to everyone who believes, Christ is the end of
> the law with respect to righteousness."
> vs.
> "For Christ is the end of the law, resulting in
> salvatio for everyone who believes."
>
> and
>
> "For to everyone who believes, it (i.e., the gospel)
> is the power of God with respect to salvation."
> vs.
> "For it (i.e., the gospel) is the power of God,
> resulting in righteousness for everyone who believes."
I think your first option misses the sense of EIS. EIS refers to result rather than "with respect to".
It also seems to me that the dative PANTI TWi PISTEUONTI is the beneficiary of the noun in the EIS phrase, i.e. in the
first, the one who believes benefits by gaining righteousness (acceptance by God), in the last, the one who believes
benefits by gaining salvation.
In the context of Romans and Gal 3:23-24, it is most likely that TELOS here has its normal sense of "end". Paul's
argument is that the Jewish belief/tradition of keeping the law as a means to gain acceptance by God has ended by the
coming of Christ. It has been replaced by trusting in Christ as Saviour. As he says in Gal 3:24, the law is no longer
our guardian, now that Christ has come. The law had that function until Christ came (EIS CRISTON - Gal 3:14). In what
sense the law might still be relevant and for whom is more than can be answered by looking at TELOS alone. Paul takes
that up in 1 Tim 1:8-9 among other places.
Iver Larsen
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