[B-Greek] Question on rules

Albert & Julia Haig albert_and_julia at yahoo.com.au
Thu Nov 10 07:30:25 EST 2005


> and increasingly the adducing of what might be
called "proof-texts" from beyond the immediate
context, beyond even the book of Revelation, in
support of an interpretation of Rev 13:8 and/or Rev
17:8 that one favors.

Just a question - surely it is acceptable, and has
certainly been standard practice in this forum in
numerous discussions, to cite references from outside
of the book in question, or even outside of the New
Testament, in order to establish some grammatical
feature or possibility in koine Greek? I agree that
citing "proof texts" from outside of the immediate
context is out-of-bounds if it is done to establish a
particular doctrinal or theological perspective
alleged to also be found in the text in question, but
I can't see how it would be possible to reasonably
discuss questions of grammar without going outside of
the book being examined - it is the same language
after all! Unless the language of Revelation is held
to be so unique that the grammar of koine Greek is
irrelevant to its understanding?

All the same, I'll respect the decision to close the
offending thread, which was nonetheless intended by me
as a purely grammatical discussion.

Dr Albert Haig.



		
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