[B-Greek] On Jussives
Donald R. Vance, Ph.D.
donaldrvance at mac.com
Fri Nov 11 14:40:27 EST 2005
You speak of greater precision in the Greek. How so? With regard to
the optative, has anyone done a study that elucidates the
correspondences (if any) between the moods of Greek and Hebrew as
reflected in the LXX? For example, is an optative in the LXX usually
reflective of a jussive (or something else) in the Hebrew (when the
LXX and MT have the same text)?
Donald R. Vance, Ph.D.
Professor of Biblical Languages and Literature
Oral Roberts University
dvance at oru.edu
donaldrvance at mac.com
On Nov 11, 2005, at 1:00 PM, Dr. Don Wilkins wrote:
> Carl Conrad is better qualified than I and most others on the list
> to address the development of Greek, and I hope he will. I would
> just like to remark that that the Hebrew substantially differs from
> the Greek in that Hebrew is far more flexible in its grammar,
> sometimes frustratingly so for someone like me. That is one reason
> I mentioned Ps. 31:17 in Hebrew vs. the LXX in my initial post. I
> noted that the LXX has optatives there instead of 3p imperatives,
> reflecting the translator's understanding and interpretation of the
> rather flexible jussive. There are many other places where the LXX
> simply has the 3p imperative as a grammar-for-grammar exchange for
> the jussive, and this perhaps indicates to us that the translators
> found matching the Hebrew construction with the correct Greek
> equivalent challenging at times. The greater precision of the Greek
> undoubtedly made the translation process more complicated.
>
> Don Wilkins
>
> On Nov 11, 2005, at 6:53 AM, Donald R. Vance, Ph.D. wrote:
>
>> In Iver Larsen's response to Don, he stated
>>
>> <snip>
>>> To view the 3. ps. "imperative" (which is better called jussive) as
>>> either a permission or a command would be
>>>
>> <snip>
>>
>> I don't know the origin of the jussive in Greek, but in Semitics this
>> term refers to an entire paradigm. The volitives have three forms,
>> the cohortative, the imperative, and the jussive. The cohortative
>> (marked by the suffix -â) and the jussive (marked by a shortened
>> form, if possible) were originally productive for all persons and
>> formed two separate paradigms alongside the indicative. Only the
>> imperative was restricted to the second person. As Hebrew developed,
>> the cohortative tended to be restricted to first person, the
>> imperative was already restricted to second person, but the jussive
>> shows up in both second and third persons with regularity (I'm not
>> sure about the first person off the top of my head). The difference
>> in nuance between the three volitives is no longer clear. Is this
>> situation analogous to that in the development of Greek?
>> ---
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