[B-Greek] 1Cor1:17 and 1Cor15:1; Question about def. articles

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Tue Nov 15 18:12:06 EST 2005


Dear Mike,

>   I just wanted to ask some of you(as someone who can just read the 
>greek) why the phrase in 1 Cor 1:17 is translated to english as  ". 
>. .but to preach the gospel." ?  IN the greek this is one word and 
>literally reads,  BAPTISEIN ALLA EUAGGELIESASQE.    In 1 Cor 15:1 
>the text seems to be saying the same phrase but here there is a def. 
>article used before "the gospel'':  TO EUAGGELION. . ..   So, why is 
>there a def. article in our english in1 Cor 1:17??  Couldn't we 
>possibly better render 1 Cor 1:17 into english as,  ". . .not to 
>baptize but to evangelize/tell good news." ?? 
>   
>   I also would like to know from some of you of other words in the 
>greek  NT where there is only one greek word  from the text but must 
>break down into more than one in our english  translation with the 
>definite article used.
>   
>   May seem like a "kindergardner's greek"  question but any of you 
>that can give me some input will greatly be appreciated.

HH: I think you could do that. The Holman Christian Standard Bible 
did that in a couple of places:
	Text
Ac 16:10
Evangelization of Europe	10 After he had seen the vision, 
we[2] The use of we in this passage probably indicates that the 
author Luke is joining Paul's missionary team here. immediately made 
efforts to set out for Macedonia, concluding that God had called us 
to evangelize them.

Ro 15:20
 From Jerusalem to Illyricum	20 So my aim is to evangelize where 
Christ has not been named, in order that I will not be building on 
someone else's foundation,


					Yours,
					Harold Holmyard





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