[B-Greek] Josephus on Isaiah (Ant.X.II.2)
Kostya Slobodyanik
my_e_studies at mail.ru
Thu Nov 24 12:29:24 EST 2005
Hello everyone,
I was reading Josephus recently and found an interesting passage. He talks about Isaiah.
here is Whiston's transaltion (in printed version the text is found Ant. Book X.chapter II, last paragraph
JOE Ant 10:35 Now as to this prophet [Isaiah], he was by the confession of all, a divine and wonderful man in speaking truth; and out of the assurance that he had never written what was false, he wrote down all his prophecies, and left them behind him in books, that their accomplishment might be judged from the events by posterity: nor did this prophet do so alone; but the others, which were twelve in number, did the same. And whatever is done among us, whether it be good, or whether it be bad, comes to pass according to their prophecies; but of everyone of these we shall speak hereafter.
The Greek text is following:
WN D'hOUTOS hPROFHTHS QEIOS hOMOLOGOUMENOS KAI QAUMASIOS THN ALHQHIAN PEPOIQWS TW MHDEN hOLWS YEUDES EIPEIN hAPANQ' hOSA PROEFHTEUSEN EGGRAYAS BIBLIOS KATELIPEN EK TOU TELOUS GNWRISQHSOMENA TOIS AUQIS ANQRWPOIS KAI OUC OU TOS MONOS hO PROFHTHS ALLA KAI ALLOI DWDEKA TON ARIQMON TO AUTO EPOIHSAN KAI PAN EI TI FAULON GINETAI PAR'hHMIN KATA THN EKEINWN APOBAINEI PROFHTEIAN ALLA TOUTWN MEN AUQIS EXAGGELOUMEN hEKASTON.
I got several questions on this text:
1. "and left them behind him in books" (greek BIBLIOS KATELIPEN ). What is meant by "books"? Does Josephus use this term in a general way (and left them behind him in Jewish sacred books) or he meant that Isaiah literally wrote more than one book?
2. "whatever is done among us, whether it be good, or whether it be bad, comes to pass according to their prophecies" as far as I understand English he means here that the fulfillment of Isaiah's prophecies took part during the time of his life (that is I AD).
Is there any other way this can be translated? I mean time rendering variants.
3. It's interesting that in his Antiquities Josephus combines the writings of Isaiah with the book of Twelve. The same order we can find in Talmud (BB 14b). He also talks of Jeremiah and Ezekiel together. At this point I found one argument pro Pseudo-Isaiah (mentioned by North in his commentary):
The order in Talmud shows us that Isaiah precedes the Twelve. The reason is their similarity: The book of Twelve consists of many oracles spoken by different people, in the same way Isaiah consists of oracles spoken by more-than-one man.
I have another explanation of this phenomena:
-Isaiah is put chronologically closer to the prophets who also prophecized during his life (Amos, Hosea). In the same manner Jeremiah and Ezekiel are put togher since they talked of the same events.
I would like to hear your thoughts on these points.
Shalom
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