[B-Greek] AUQENTEIN ANDROS

Steven Lo Vullo themelios at charter.net
Sun Oct 2 15:05:30 EDT 2005


On Oct 2, 2005, at 10:39 AM, George F Somsel wrote:

> On Mon, 03 Oct 2005 03:11:54 +1300 "greg coupe"
> <gregorycoupe at hotmail.com> writes:
>> I don't understand why "authentein andros" (AUQENTEIN ANDROS) cannot
>> be
>> translated "to be exercising male authority."
>> Authentein (AUQENTEIN) means "to be self (auto)-working (hentes)"
>> which
>> basically means "to be exercising authority."
>> Andros means "of man." So the words "AUQENTEIN ANDROS" means "to be
>> self
>> working of man" or "to be exercising authority of man." I understand
>> that
>> this can be translated "to be exercising authority OVER man" but why
>> is it
>> impossible to translate it "to be exercising male authority" i.e "to
>> be
>> exercising the authority which belongs to man, which he has the job
>> of
>> exercising." For example, if Paul considered teaching in church to
>> be a job
>> reserved for male's he might say that a woman who was teaching in
>> church was
>> "exercising male authority." Please explain why the translation "to
>> be
>> exercising male authority" is an impossible translation.
> ______________
>
> AUQENTEW takes the genitive for that over which authority is exercised
> (see BDAG).  This is the situation which occurs in 1 Tim 2.12.

This is true also of other words that denote the exercise of authority, 
e.g., ARCW (see Mark 10.42; Rom 15.12). Indeed, in Mark 10.42 there are 
THREE words that follow this pattern, ARCEIN, KATAKURIEUOUSIN, and 
KATEXOUSIAZOUSIN. None of these expressions makes sense if we treat the 
genitive as subjective.

Steve Lo Vullo



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