[B-Greek] Relative Clause and Subjunctive Mood
Mitch Larramore
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Tue Oct 11 09:09:54 EDT 2005
It is pointed out that Relative Clauses usually
contain an Indicative verb, and that only 10 percent
(or so) of such usages contain a Subjunctive verb. Why
would that be the case? I can't think of any reason
why the "Mood" of the finite verb would have a bearing
on whether or not it is used in a Relative Clause.
Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas
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