[B-Greek] Future translated with a subjunctive mood
Elizabeth Kline
kline-dekooning at earthlink.net
Fri Oct 28 13:20:17 EDT 2005
On Oct 28, 2005, at 7:18 AM, Chris and Amber Jones wrote:
> In Romans 11:26 Paul uses the future tense in
> describing future events involving Israel. Is it valid
> to translate the future with 'can' instead of 'will'?
> In other words, Rom 11:26 would be stated "All Israel
> can be saved" vs. "All Israel will be saved".
ROM. 11:25 OU GAR QELW hUMAS AGNOEIN, ADELFOI, TO MUSTHRION TOUTO,
hINA MH HTE [PAR] hEAUTOIS FRONIMOI, hOTI PWRWSIS APO MEROUS TWi
ISRAHL GEGONEN ACRI hOU TO PLHRWMA TWN EQNWN EISELQHi 26 KAI hOUTWS
PAS ISRAHL SWQHSETAI, KAQWS GEGRAPTAI: hHXEI EK SIWN hO hRUOMENOS,
APOSTREYEI ASEBEIAS APO IAKWB. 27 KAI hAUTH AUTOIS hH PAR' EMOU
DIAQHKH, hOTAN AFELWMAI TAS hAMARTIAS AUTWN.
Almost every word in this text is a matter of dispute:
KAI hOUTWS can be used to mark temporal sequence or it can mark a
logical inference or perhaps both. The precceding ACRI hOU TO PLHRWMA
TWN EQNWN EISELQHi indicates a temporal progression. SWQHSETAI may
point to a future event within history or an eschatological event.
Some scholars wouldn't make this distinction an either/or. Both
options take SWQHSETAI as a grammatical future.
Elizabeth Kline
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