[B-Greek] KEIMENH Matt 5:14
Mitch Larramore
mitchlarramore at yahoo.com
Mon Oct 31 17:20:06 EST 2005
Dr. Conrad...
This may be a ridiculous question, but I've read more
than once an explanation similar to the one you've
given here and really have never understood the behind
the scenes workings of such a phenomenon. Why would a
particular verb act as the Passive of a different
verb? Did this happen with the combining of the
various dialects into KOINH? I believe I've even read
something similar to that with OIDA and one of its
tense functions. Is this answerable in a venue such as this?
Mitch Larramore
Sugar Land, Texas
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