[B-Greek] KURIAKOS vs KURIOU?

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Sun Sep 11 19:13:25 EDT 2005


Dear Craig,

>Recently I looked up either 1 Cor 11:20 or Rev 1:10 and was surprised to
>find out "Lord's" was actually KURIAKOS instead of just KURIOU. More
>surprised to find it only occurred in those two places, and I don't think
>ever in LXX.
>
>I don't think the entry in BAGD was that extensive. I'm wondering if anyone
>else can shed some light on the significance of KURIAKOS, and how it is
>distinct from simple genitive use of KURIOS? What information about this
>word might be relevant to understanding Paul's and John's selection over
>KURIOU?

HH: I think the reason that it may have been chosen in Rev 1:10 is 
that the reference is to a day of the week. It gives the 
circumstances John was in when the vision started. BAGD says that 
this is certainly Sunday, as is the case in modern Greek. The phrase 
hHMERA KURIOU had a fixed prophetic meaning as indicating the climax 
of the age (Acts 2:20, etc.). Why this was done with 1 Cor 11:20 is 
not so clear to me.

				Yours,
				Harold Holmyard



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