[B-Greek] hOTI

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at ioa.com
Thu Sep 15 15:01:25 EDT 2005


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Do I gather correctly from your post that you are simply translating  
the Latin MS and that you really don't know Greek at all? If you knew  
or had
read any significant amount of NT Koine Greek, you would be aware  
that hOTI is indeed used (a)  to introduce indirect discourse, (b) to  
introduce
direct discourse (in which case it's not translated at all), (c) to  
introduce an adverbial causal clause ("because ..., since ..."), (d)  
sometimes to
introduce a noun clause of some other sort (much like the Latin QUOD  
bearing the sense "the fact being that ..."). I'm not sure that one  
could
readily discern where a Latin QUIA reproduced one of these functions  
of hOTI in the Greek original without consulting the original Greek text
and judging the sense there.

On Sep 15, 2005, at 2:05 PM, Daveat168 at aol.com wrote:

>     I have over the past 3 years, been occupied in translating the  
> Victor
> Codex Gospel into English, using the Douay-Rheims translation  
> synchronised with
> Jerome's Vulgate.  To see my work, you are welcome to look at <A
> HREF="http://www.sangallen56.pwp.blueyonder.co.uk/">The Forgotten  
> Gospel</A>.
>     I am now refining an A5 hard back edition, which follows as  
> best as I
> can, the layout of the Latin/Saxon version, but only giving the  
> English
> translation.  My intent is to follow closely the language of Douay- 
> Rheims, but where
> that translation is archaic or obscure, to attempt a better  
> translation.
>     I have though met a problem, which seems to be without  
> solution.  There
> are quite a few cases where speech is introduced by the Lating  
> conjunction
> <quia>, which is clearly derived from the Greek <hOTI>.  <Quia> is  
> in this useage
> translated as <that> in English, and used to introduce, at least in  
> English,
> indirect speech.  It seems though in the Latin, that <quia>, though  
> introducing
> indirect speech, frequently leaves the speech in verbatim format.
>     The Latin in question is dated around 200AD, so is not truely  
> Classical,
> neither is it Vulgar, but would be better described as Hellenised  
> Classical.
> In this dialect, it would seem that Greek syntax has been  
> introduced to better
> convey the Greek concepts involved.
>     Can it be that the Greek has this propensity to introduce  
> indirect speech
> with <hOTI>, but then use the verbatim format for the speech.   
> Would it then
> be proper to correct the format into correct reported format, or  
> should the
> speech be regarded as being direct in spite of having been  
> introduced as
> indirect?
> ---
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Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/




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