[B-Greek] Question about Strong's #3709

RAY MARTINEZ pyramidial at yahoo.com
Fri Sep 16 19:19:02 EDT 2005


Hi Everyone:
 
I am in the midst of writing an article about Romans 1:17-25  and the only bit of Greek grammar that I need to incorporate into the article is what "orge"/wrath is in the grammar.
 
According to Dr. Gene Scott Ph.D. Stanford University, [oral teaching, January 2001] "orge" is a "present tense verb", HOWEVER the paper attachment 'hand-out' by Dr. Scott to everyone present at the lecture indicates the word in question is "N-NF-S" (whatever that means).
 
Question: Did Dr. Scott mis-speak or what ?
 
PLEASE someone tell me about orge and what it is in the grammar and try to rectify it against what Dr. Scott said.
 
Thank you for your consideration.
 
Ray Martinez
 
 
 
 
 
 

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