[B-Greek] KURIAKOS vs KURIOU?

Jeff Smelser jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net
Sat Sep 17 00:38:52 EDT 2005


craig wrote:

    Does anyone else have any further comments on below? I'm still
    kurious about
    KURIAKOS :)

    --
    Craig Johnson
    Brisbane, Australia



Kute!

Well, I can ramble a bit and talk about what others have said...

Smyth noted that many denominatives (i.e., adjectives formed from a noun 
stem or adverb; a.k.a. "secondary," which is the term Smyth will use 
below) formed by the addition of the suffix KO, AKO, or IKO (add the 
final sigma for the masculine nom. sing.) "denote relation, many others 
fitness or ability." (858.6)

Metzger mentions specifically the 3rd of these and characterizes such 
adjectives as meaning "belonging to," "pertaining to," or "with the 
characteristics of." He gives examples in -IKOS, including BASIL-IKOS 
("belonging to a king, kingly, royal"), PNEUMAT-IKOS ("pertaining to the 
spirit, with the characteristics of the spirit, spiritual"), SARK-IKOS 
("fleshly, carnal"), and SOMAT-IKOS ("pertaining to the body, bodily").

I think of KURIAKOS as being similar. But Smyth mentioned KURIAKOS 
specifically in section 864.1  - "IAKO: secondary, in KUR-IAKO-S of the 
Lord." He treated the suffix as including the iota, apparently reckoning 
the adjective to be derived from the noun KUROS rather than from its 
heir, KURIOS. I had guessed the adj. is from KURIOS and the suffix is 
-AKOS rather than -IAKOS. But then one of my guesses and several dollars 
will get you a gallon of gasoline. Go with Smyth. (But I'd still like to 
hear Carl's thoughts on that point.)

In any event, to me it seems safe to say the suffix indicates a 
relational idea similar to that seen in adjectives in -IKOS, and the 
"pertaining to" or "belonging to" idea seems to work especially well for 
KURIAKOS.

As to why the choice of KURIAKOS rather than a genitive construction 
using the noun KURIOU, I'd suggest that even though there is some 
latitude in interpreting the significance of the adjectival suffix, the 
relationship is somewhat more specifically characterized thereby than by 
the genitive case form, which is used for ideas as widely divergent as 
kind, source, possession, etc. Hence the adjective was well suited to 
designate a day that was specially the Lord's, and to designate the 
supper particularly pertaining to the Lord and eaten on that day.

Jeff Smelser
www.ntgreek.net
www.centrevillechurchofchrist.org



>  
>
>>-----Original Message-----
>>From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org 
>>[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of craig
>>Sent: Monday, 12 September 2005 8:35 AM
>>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>Subject: [B-Greek] KURIAKOS vs KURIOU?
>>
>>
>>Recently I looked up either 1 Cor 11:20 or Rev 1:10 and was 
>>surprised to find out "Lord's" was actually KURIAKOS instead 
>>of just KURIOU. More surprised to find it only occurred in 
>>those two places, and I don't think ever in LXX.
>>
>>I don't think the entry in BAGD was that extensive. I'm 
>>wondering if anyone else can shed some light on the 
>>significance of KURIAKOS, and how it is distinct from simple 
>>genitive use of KURIOS? What information about this word 
>>might be relevant to understanding Paul's and John's 
>>selection over KURIOU?
>>
>>Thanks!
>>
>>--
>>Craig Johnson
>>Brisbane, Australia 
>>
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