[B-Greek] KURIAKOS vs KURIOU?

craig newsgroupstuff at people.net.au
Sat Sep 17 09:05:37 EDT 2005


> > Does anyone else have any further comments on below? I'm 
> > still kurious about KURIAKOS :)
> > 
> Maybe I'm being stupid, but I'm not getting the problem.  
> KURIAKOS is an 
> adjective; KURIOU is a noun in the genitive.  What am I not 
> seeing? Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2 at comcast.net St John the 
> Evangelist, San Francisco
> >From envy, hatred, and malice and all uncharitableness
> Good Lord, deliver us.

To me there would seem to be some overlap between saying something is KURIOU
(<noun> of the Lord) and putting it with the adjective KURIAKOS (the Lord's
<noun>). I'm wondering why choose one over the other? Why is KURIAKOS only
used 2 times in the NT, and not anywhere else?

For example, reading over Jeff and George's replies and thinking over it a
bit more as an adjective, perhaps using KURIAKOS gives it a closer
connection with the noun, rather than as a 'secondary modifier' if KURIOU
was used? Then KURIAKOS would be more integral to the thing talked about,
bundled together with it, kind of as part of the title or name of the thing,
morese than perhaps KURIOU would.

Alternatively, perhaps KURIAKOS has more cultural significance or something,
and therefore that might be a reason for its use over KURIOU.

I'm hoping Carl will chime in and add his thoughts too!

--
Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia 

PS Sorry Barbara for sending you a blank email.. I accidentally clicked on
'send' before typing anything!




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