[B-Greek] KURIAKH or KURIOU

Iver Larsen iver at larsen.dk
Mon Sep 19 02:33:00 EDT 2005


> Personally, I don't have a lot of difficulty with your comments,
> but I think it is worth pointing out that a significant number of
> commentators have taken the "Lord's day" in Rev 1:9 to refer to
> the eschatological day of the Lord, understanding the the verse
> to mean something like "I, John, was taken to the end times in
> vision".  John Walvoord is one.  Samuel Bacchiocchi, in his
> doctorate From Sabbath to Sunday, takes the same position.

I would not say that a "significant" number of commentators have taken this
reading of the text. When I looked up in the Exegetical Summaries by SIL,
there was only 1 out of 15 commentators that had taken this view, and that
single dissenter was, as you mention, John F. Walvoord.
I really don't see how the Greek text can possibly be taken this way.

> I don't know that we can draw to sharp a contrast between the two
> genitives, given the other use of KURIAKH in the New Testament: I
> Cor 11:20 -- KURIARKON DEIPNON.

I did mention the two genitives used in English, but there is only one
genitive in Greek. The other is a noun qualified by an adjective. And
meaning is not just a matter of grammar, but as much of pragmatics.

Iver Larsen

>
> Regards
>
> David Thiele
> Pacific Adventist University
> Papua New Guinea




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