[B-Greek] SIGATW in 1 Cor 14:30
Eddie Mishoe
edmishoe at yahoo.com
Wed Sep 28 08:46:09 EDT 2005
Since this thread has gone somewhat beyond grammar, I
thought I would add this. There is an assumption here
that I think is unjustifiable, and one that is common
among linguists. To wit: If Paul used the Present, he
wanted to avoid an Aorist. This is not the case. The
use of an Aorist may have been equally considered, but
Paul chose to EMPHASIZE the Present aspect. There is
an assumption that since he didn't use an Aorist, he
was trying to ONLY communicate the aspectual element
of the Present. Paul is free to address one dimension
of the issue without addressing ALL dimensions of the
issue.
Eddie Mishoe
Pastor
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