[B-Greek] Jn 20:28 - Grammatical difference between the nominative for vocative or of exclamation?
Carlton Winbery
winberycl at earthlink.net
Sat Apr 1 15:38:22 EST 2006
>Jn 20:28 APEKRIQH QWMAS KAI EIPEN AUTWi, hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS MOU.
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>Greetings,
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>The phrase "My Lord and my God" in Jn 20:28 contains articular
>nominatives (Lord, God) which are identified by Robertson and
>Wallace as the "Nominative for Vocative". I would think the way
>Jehovah's Witnesses view this they would want to classify it as the
>"Nominative for Exclamation". Besides context (Jesus not rebuking
>Thomas) is there a way to tell the difference between the use of the
>nominative for vocative and the nominative of exclamation strictly
>by syntax? Wallace lists 3 ways to identify: (1) the lack of a verb
>(though one may be implied), (2) the obvious emotion of the author,
>and (3) the necessity of an exclamation point in translation. I
>would think reasons 2 and 3 could apply here, but would the verbs
>APEKRIQH and/or EIPEN disqualify the phrase as a Nominative for
>Exclamation? Are there any additional ways to support the Nom. for
>Vocative identification?
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>Thanks,
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>Robb Wallace
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Robb, please leave the JW beliefs and translation out of questions
for the list. If you want to know what they think, find a list that
discusses that. Ask about the implications of the Greek of John 20:28
and leave all else aside. No more about the JW's.
Carlton Winbery
Co-moderator
--
Carlton L. Winbery
Retired Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
318-448-6103
winberycl at earthlink.net
winbery at lacollege.edu
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