[B-Greek] new person here
Douglas Overstreet
pndoverstreet at earthlink.net
Tue Aug 8 13:15:24 EDT 2006
I'm a brand new person, and I know just enough Greek to probably annoy those people who are real scholars.
I've run across something that I find really interesting. Yet, I don't know if I should be making something of it or not. I'll wait to hear from the professionals.
There are three verses that I'm honing in on:
Matt 5:48, "BE perfect, as your Father in heaven is perfect."
Luke 6:36, "BE merciful, just as your Father is merciful."
1 Pet 1:15, 16, "BE holy ... it is written, 'you shall be holy, for I am holy'."
In Luke and Peter, both of the BE's are the Greek word ginomai. The way I understand this word is that it indicates "to become", to change from one condition to another.
In Luke, BE is a present tense imperative. So we're commanded to continually be merciful, just as God is continually merciful.
In Peter, BE is an aorist imperative. So we're commanded to be separated for God, which we are as sanctified, holy saints. I see the v. 16 quote from Lev 19:2 that we "will be" holy as a promise that as believers in Christ, we'll be set apart.
In Matthew, the BE is esomai (from eimi). And the way I see this, is that it's a future tense, and not an imperative. So if we're not being commanded to be perfect (which we can't, in our current sinful bodies), are we then being promised that we will be perfect? And this would be at the resurrection when we receive our glorified sinless bodies?
Thank you for your patience and feedback.
Peggy Overstreet
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