[B-Greek] new person here

Kenneth.Chaney at gtri.gatech.edu Kenneth.Chaney at gtri.gatech.edu
Tue Aug 8 14:02:29 EDT 2006


I am really out of my league.


-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of George F Somsel
Sent: Tuesday, August 08, 2006 1:55 PM
To: pndoverstreet at earthlink.net; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] new person here

TEXT
   
  Mt 5.48 
      


  ESESQE OUN hUMEIS TELEIOI hWS hO PATHR hUMWN hO OURANIOW TELEIOS ESTIN

  You are correct to note that ESESQE is a future.  What we have here is
an adaptation of Dt 18.13 in the LXX version.  That reads
         


TELEIOS ESHi ENANTION KURIOU TOU QEOU SOU 
   
  The difference between the two (other than some elaboration) is that
in the LXX of Dt 18.13 the verb is singular whereas here it is plural.
This is probably a "volitive future", i.e. it has the force of an
imperative (See A.T. Robertson, _A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in
the Light of Historical Research_, p. 942).  There is no future
imperative.
   
  ____________
  
Peggy Overstreet <pndoverstreet at earthlink.net> wrote:
  I'm a brand new person, and I know just enough Greek to probably annoy
those people who are real scholars.

I've run across something that I find really interesting. Yet, I don't
know if I should be making something of it or not. I'll wait to hear
from the professionals.

There are three verses that I'm honing in on:

Matt 5:48, "BE perfect, as your Father in heaven is perfect."
Luke 6:36, "BE merciful, just as your Father is merciful."
1 Pet 1:15, 16, "BE holy ... it is written, 'you shall be holy, for I am
holy'."

In Luke and Peter, both of the BE's are the Greek word ginomai. The way
I understand this word is that it indicates "to become", to change from
one condition to another. 

In Luke, BE is a present tense imperative. So we're commanded to
continually be merciful, just as God is continually merciful. 

In Peter, BE is an aorist imperative. So we're commanded to be separated
for God, which we are as sanctified, holy saints. I see the v. 16 quote
from Lev 19:2 that we "will be" holy as a promise that as believers in
Christ, we'll be set apart.

In Matthew, the BE is esomai (from eimi). And the way I see this, is
that it's a future tense, and not an imperative. So if we're not being
commanded to be perfect (which we can't, in our current sinful bodies),
are we then being promised that we will be perfect? And this would be at
the resurrection when we receive our glorified sinless bodies? 

Thank you for your patience and feedback.

Peggy Overstreet



george
gfsomsel
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