[B-Greek] Why Monotonic Greek. Was: Free Polytonic Uncial Greek Unicode Font?
Eric Weiss
papaweiss1 at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 9 20:20:42 EDT 2006
Curtis Hinson wrote:
> The Greeks themselves finally rethought the issue and as
> of the late 1970s, polytonic Greek is illegal in Greece
> for official documents or public signage, and monotonic
> Greek is the standard in Greece. Greeks reasoned that
> the polytonic system was useless since they did not need
> markings to know how to pronounce their own language.
>
>
> I cited an example of how the aspiration on the eta in John
> 1:17 throws the meaning of the verse in a different light.
> I personally feel this adds an unnecessary opportunity for
> editorializing in the Greek text, and since so many appeal
> to the Greek text to throw off the editorializing of the
> translations, I find it distasteful to use diacriticals in
> that way.
Can you explain what you mean here? I.e., does monotonic
Greek mean "without the accents and breathing marks"?
And - which word of John 1:17 is significantly affected
by the rough breathing on the eta? How do you read/translate
it without the aspiration?
Thanks!
Eric S. Weiss
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