[B-Greek] John 1:18 translation Q

Jason Kerrigan jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Thu Aug 10 23:58:30 EDT 2006


Hello again,
   
  Regarding theos needing to be in the accusative (as the object) of Christ's declaration I must disagree (although I am open to correction). 
   
  As in Acts 15:14 God is the subject of the discourse, likewise God is the subject being declared in John 1:18. God is being declared as the subject. The accusative represents the object of an action, but the Son declaring God does not make theos the object. As I see it theos is the subject of that declaration and thus should be expected to appear as the nominative.
   
   And regarding the other response, I do not see why ekeinos has the potential to refer back to  monogenes theos but not theos alone. 
   
  Maybe I am missing or misunderstanding something...
   
  I also would like to hear some comments regarding Tatian's use of both Son and God (if the translation I presented was accurate). "the only Son, God, the one being in the bosom of the Father, that one declared"
   
  Thanks,
  Jason

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