[B-Greek] Comparing John 1:18 & 1John 4:12
Awohili at aol.com
Awohili at aol.com
Sat Aug 12 20:32:46 EDT 2006
But how did the "only" and "unique" get to be "only" and "unique"?
Is the term generally applied in Scripture to what was not "begotten"? Does
not -GENOS refer generally to what is "begotten"?
What is the significance of MONOGENHS when it is usually phrased in a
familial relationship in Scripture, even with respect to the "unique" one of the
Father?
Perhaps the Latin translators were not entirely incorrect.
Solomon Landers
In a message dated 08/12/2006 4:31:28 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,
frjsilver at optonline.net writes:
MONOGENHS does *not* mean 'only begotten', but rather 'only, unique'.
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