[B-Greek] Comparing John 1:18 & 1John 4:12

Awohili at aol.com Awohili at aol.com
Sat Aug 12 20:32:46 EDT 2006


 
But how did the "only" and "unique" get to be "only" and "unique"?  
 
Is the term generally applied in Scripture to what was not  "begotten"?  Does 
not -GENOS refer generally to what is "begotten"?
 
What is the significance of MONOGENHS when it is  usually phrased in a 
familial relationship in Scripture, even with  respect to the "unique" one of the 
Father?
 
Perhaps the Latin translators were not entirely incorrect.
 
Solomon Landers
 
In a message dated 08/12/2006 4:31:28 P.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
frjsilver at optonline.net writes:

MONOGENHS  does *not* mean 'only begotten', but rather 'only,  unique'.







More information about the B-Greek mailing list