[B-Greek] O QEOS AGAPA ESTI
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Aug 12 21:46:31 EDT 2006
On Aug 12, 2006, at 2:27 PM, Roger Kohlstedt wrote:
> In 1 John 4:8 the phrase O QEOS AGAPA ESTI, and
> in 1 John 1:5 O QEOS FWS ESTI, is there any
> exegetical significance that ESTI comes after the
> adjective rather than before? Or is that word
> arrangement just a Greek idiom?
It's hO QEOS AGAPH ESTIN and hO QEOS FWS ESTIN. AGAPH and FWS are
predicate nouns, not adjectives. It is not at all uncommon, perhaps
more common than not that the predicate word precedes the copula. I
don't think there's any exegetical significance to this order at all.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list