[B-Greek] O QEOS AGAPA ESTI

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Aug 12 21:46:31 EDT 2006


On Aug 12, 2006, at 2:27 PM, Roger Kohlstedt wrote:

> In 1 John 4:8  the phrase   O QEOS AGAPA  ESTI,   and
> in 1 John 1:5 O QEOS FWS ESTI,  is there any
> exegetical significance  that ESTI comes after the
> adjective rather than before?  Or is that word
> arrangement just a Greek idiom?

It's hO QEOS AGAPH ESTIN and hO QEOS FWS ESTIN. AGAPH and FWS are  
predicate nouns, not adjectives. It is not at all uncommon, perhaps  
more common than not that the predicate word precedes the copula. I  
don't think there's any exegetical significance to this order at all.


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad2 at mac.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/





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