[B-Greek] Clarifying Iver's John 1:18 position

Jason Kerrigan jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 13 13:03:56 EDT 2006


Iver Larson previously wrote:
   
  Yes, it would be legitimate to make the implied 
  contrast explicit by adding a "but". NIV, NLT 
  and NCV are some of the English versions that 
  do exactly that. It is common in Hebrew thought 
  pattern to first state a general principle and 
after that list one or more exceptions. And it is 
  clear from this whole chapter that Jesus, the 
  one-and-only Son was with God and had obviously 
  seen God in contrast to every human being. That 
  is why Jesus was able to explain/show/make God 
  known to humans.

  Iver, I am trying to clarify your position so as to 
  find confirmation regarding the proposed translation:
   
  "God no man hath seen at any time except the only 
  begotten. God, the one being in the bosom of the 
  Father, that one declared."
   
  Apart from the fact that you believe that theos was 
  originally huios in the second clause, and that you
  disagree with monogenes tranlsated as "only begotten," 
  could the passage otherwise be translated thus 
  accurately without violating any grammatical laws? 
   
  Thanks,
  Jason Kerrigan

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