[B-Greek] Clarifying Iver's John 1:18 position
Jason Kerrigan
jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 13 13:03:56 EDT 2006
Iver Larson previously wrote:
Yes, it would be legitimate to make the implied
contrast explicit by adding a "but". NIV, NLT
and NCV are some of the English versions that
do exactly that. It is common in Hebrew thought
pattern to first state a general principle and
after that list one or more exceptions. And it is
clear from this whole chapter that Jesus, the
one-and-only Son was with God and had obviously
seen God in contrast to every human being. That
is why Jesus was able to explain/show/make God
known to humans.
Iver, I am trying to clarify your position so as to
find confirmation regarding the proposed translation:
"God no man hath seen at any time except the only
begotten. God, the one being in the bosom of the
Father, that one declared."
Apart from the fact that you believe that theos was
originally huios in the second clause, and that you
disagree with monogenes tranlsated as "only begotten,"
could the passage otherwise be translated thus
accurately without violating any grammatical laws?
Thanks,
Jason Kerrigan
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