[B-Greek] John 6:62 former bread? former position?

Jason Kerrigan jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 13 13:21:46 EDT 2006


Another position I would like to either be vindicated
  or refuted concerns John 6:62.
   
  The Greek phrase translated in the KJV as, "where 
  he was before," reads as follows:
        opou hn to proteron
  Most translators understand, "hn," as referring back 
  to "the Son of Man," and thus they translate, "hn," 
  as, "he was." However that is not the necessary 
  translation of this passage. Consider the following: 
    

  The linking verb, "hn," is also used to relegate feminine 
  Greek nouns (ex. John 7:2 - feast of tabernacles) as well 
  as neuter Greek nouns (ex. John 6:22 - boat). 
    
  

  Also, "hn," often precedes the relegated noun in a Greek 
  clause:
    

        opou hn Dauid
  where was David (John 7:42)
   
  "Hath not the scripture said, That 
  Christ cometh of the seed of David, 
  and out of the town of Bethlehem, 
  where David was?" (John 7:42)
    

  The word, "proteron," which is translated as, "before," in 
  the KJV can also be translated as, "first," (ex. Galatians 
  4:13) or, "former" (ex. Hebrews 10:32)
    
  

  There is a direct article, "to," preceding the word, "proteron," 
  thus emphasizing identity: "the" proteron 
    

  In light of these things is it possible to translate of John 6:62 
  as:
      "What
if ye shall see the Son of man ascend 
  up to where the former was?" (John 6:62)
  Christ just finished referring to that first bread which came 
  down from heaven during the Israelites journey through the 
  wilderness (John 6:31-32, 58). Hence I believe that in John 
  6:62 he was signifying his future ascension to heaven where 
  that first and former bread had come from (John 6:31). 
   
  Jesus shows that he was contrasting the two breads, saying:
      "This is the bread that came down from heaven: 
  not as your fathers did eat manna, and are 
  dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for 
  ever." (John 6:58) 
  Now by saying, "this bread," it is manifest that Christ was 
  comparing and contrasting the bread from heaven in Moses’ 
  day with himself. After contrasting the two breads in John 6:58 
  the very next words that Jesus says are:
      "Doth this offend you? What and if ye shall see 
  the Son of man ascend up to where the former 
  was?" (John 6:63) 
  Thus he further contrasted the two breads and spoke of his 
  visible ascension to heaven, where the former bread had come 
  from.
   
  Is this way off? 
   
  Thanks,
  Jason Kerrigan

 			
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