[B-Greek] John 6:62 former bread? former position?
Jason Kerrigan
jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Sun Aug 13 13:21:46 EDT 2006
Another position I would like to either be vindicated
or refuted concerns John 6:62.
The Greek phrase translated in the KJV as, "where
he was before," reads as follows:
opou hn to proteron
Most translators understand, "hn," as referring back
to "the Son of Man," and thus they translate, "hn,"
as, "he was." However that is not the necessary
translation of this passage. Consider the following:
The linking verb, "hn," is also used to relegate feminine
Greek nouns (ex. John 7:2 - feast of tabernacles) as well
as neuter Greek nouns (ex. John 6:22 - boat).
Also, "hn," often precedes the relegated noun in a Greek
clause:
opou hn Dauid
where was David (John 7:42)
"Hath not the scripture said, That
Christ cometh of the seed of David,
and out of the town of Bethlehem,
where David was?" (John 7:42)
The word, "proteron," which is translated as, "before," in
the KJV can also be translated as, "first," (ex. Galatians
4:13) or, "former" (ex. Hebrews 10:32)
There is a direct article, "to," preceding the word, "proteron,"
thus emphasizing identity: "the" proteron
In light of these things is it possible to translate of John 6:62
as:
"What
if ye shall see the Son of man ascend
up to where the former was?" (John 6:62)
Christ just finished referring to that first bread which came
down from heaven during the Israelites journey through the
wilderness (John 6:31-32, 58). Hence I believe that in John
6:62 he was signifying his future ascension to heaven where
that first and former bread had come from (John 6:31).
Jesus shows that he was contrasting the two breads, saying:
"This is the bread that came down from heaven:
not as your fathers did eat manna, and are
dead: he that eateth of this bread shall live for
ever." (John 6:58)
Now by saying, "this bread," it is manifest that Christ was
comparing and contrasting the bread from heaven in Moses
day with himself. After contrasting the two breads in John 6:58
the very next words that Jesus says are:
"Doth this offend you? What and if ye shall see
the Son of man ascend up to where the former
was?" (John 6:63)
Thus he further contrasted the two breads and spoke of his
visible ascension to heaven, where the former bread had come
from.
Is this way off?
Thanks,
Jason Kerrigan
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