[B-Greek] Is GRAPH ever used as a proper noun in the NT?
Leonard Jayawardena
leonardj at sltnet.lk
Tue Aug 15 01:30:38 EDT 2006
In his article "The Terms 'scripture' and 'scriptures'" (in The Inspiration and Authority of the Bible), B. B. Warfield says that GRAPH is used as a proper name in the following passages:
2 Timothy 3:16: PASA GRAPH QEOPNEUSTOS
1 Peter 2:6: DIOTI PERIECEI EN GRAPHi
2 Peter 1:20: PASA PROFHTEIA GRAPHS IDIAS EPILUSEWS OU GINETAI
Some translations, too, seem to reflect this view.
What exactly is the basis for treating GRAPH in the above verses as a proper noun? Warfield's argument seems to be that the word, either in the singular or plural, is always used in the NT in a technical sense to refer to the OT. Is there a Greek rule covering this point?
GRAPH occurs without the definite article in all these instances (plus John 19:37--hETERA GRAPH), whereas in all other 25 or so occurrences in the NT it is accompanied by the definite article (hH GRAPH). In all the cases where GRAPH occurs in the singular with the article it can be demonstrated that the word always refers to a single passage of the OT. I think GRAPH in 2 Tim. 3:16 can be understood as simply "writing" and in 1 Peter 2:6 it may be used indefinitely to mean a "a scripture." The Twentieth Century New Testament translates this verse thus:"For there is a passage of Scripture that runs...." Moffatt translates PROFHTEIA GRAPH in 2 Peter 1:20 as "prophetic scripture."
If what I have said in the preceding paragraph is correct, is the view that GRAPH is used as a proper noun in the above three verses tenable?
Leonard Jayawardena
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