[B-Greek] Direct Discourse: Nominative/Object?
Jason Kerrigan
jasonandshon at yahoo.com
Tue Aug 22 21:36:56 EDT 2006
I have to ask this... I don't know where
else to turn.
I have examoned the passage (more) thoroughly
and I have to re-ask the question. Please forgive me
for the bother.
John 1:18 says, "No man hath seen God at any time;
MONOGENES QEOS O WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU
PATROS EKEINOS EXHGHSATO."
I know there is a big dispute over whether the original
reading was QEOS or hUIOS, but if the reading were
QEOS, and both MONOGENES and QEOS functioned as
substantives then is there any way (grammatically
speaking) that QEOS could function as the object of
EXHGHSATO? (There is no stated object otherwise).
I read an article that presented a pretty strong case
in favor of MONOGENES and QEOS functioning as
substantives @ http://www.forananswer.org/John/Jn1_18.htm
MONOGENES is also used in John 1:14 as a substantive.
The matching case and gender of the preceeding
adjective/noun does not necessarily demand that it
modify the noun that follows it.
In 2Peter 2:5 "OGDOON" (eighth) could grammatically function as
an adjective in this passage (OGDOON NOE), and thus modify "NOE"
(Noah), however it functions as a substanttive instead. If "OGDOON"
(eighth) functioned as an adjective then this would mean that
the "eighth Noah" was in view. But it rather refers to the
eighth of those eight soulds saved in the ark.
And in my inquiries I have found (at least I think I
have been informed thus) that unless John 1:18 is
direct discourse then QEOS (as a nominative) could
not function as the object.
Origin believed that John 1:15-18 DOES contain direct
discourse, being the speech of John the Baptist. He said:
"'No one hath seen God at any time; MONOGENES
QEOS W WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU PATROS EKEINOS
EXHGHSATO.' This whole speech is from the mouth of
the Baptist bearing witness to the Christ." (- Origen,
Commentary on John, Book II, XXIX)
So I was wondering whether, in Origen's view,
QEOS could function as the object, thus reading
as:
"No man hath seen God at any time; the only
begotten, who is in the bosom of the Father, hath
declared God."
I am trying to probe into all of the ways that
John 1:18 can be translated (even hypothetically).
From a strictly grammatical/hypothetical standpoint
IS THIS POSSIBLE?
P.S. I don't have a problem with saying that Christ
is QEOS or MONOGENES QEOS
I a,m not trying to "flog a dead horse" but I have
simply not felt that the question has been
answered from a strictly grammatical position of
(even a hypothetical) direct discourse.
Sorry to be a bother.
Thanks,
Jason Kerrigan
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