[B-Greek] Direct Discourse: Nominative/Object?
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Aug 23 06:42:26 EDT 2006
There is no way for this to be considered either as direct discourse or as indirect discourse.
No, it is not possible to translate this as "No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten, who is in the bosom of the Father, hath declared God" either in direct discourse or in indirect. The exception to this is if you wish to make the QEON which begins the sentence do double duty (as Carl suggested and with which I would agree). This means, however, that in your version you have omitted the QEOS which follows MONOGENHS. It is the "only-begotten God" or "unique God" who is reference by EKEINOS and who reveals God because he has been in close association with him. Being a nominative QEOS cannot be the object which would necessitate the accusative. While virtually any word can be substantivized in Greek, it is sometimes necessary to recognize that it functions in a particular situation as an adjective. It is thus with MONOGENHS in this passage. It describes QEOS.
Now, hand over your whip.
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Jason Kerrigan <jasonandshon at yahoo.com> wrote:
And in my inquiries I have found (at least I think I
have been informed thus) that unless John 1:18 is
direct discourse then QEOS (as a nominative) could
not function as the object.
Origin believed that John 1:15-18 DOES contain direct
discourse, being the speech of John the Baptist. He said:
"'No one hath seen God at any time; MONOGENES
QEOS W WN EIS TON KOLPON TOU PATROS EKEINOS
EXHGHSATO.' This whole speech is from the mouth of
the Baptist bearing witness to the Christ." (- Origen,
Commentary on John, Book II, XXIX)
So I was wondering whether, in Origen's view,
QEOS could function as the object, thus reading
as:
"No man hath seen God at any time; the only
begotten, who is in the bosom of the Father, hath
declared God."
I am trying to probe into all of the ways that
John 1:18 can be translated (even hypothetically).
>From a strictly grammatical/hypothetical standpoint
IS THIS POSSIBLE?
P.S. I don't have a problem with saying that Christ
is QEOS or MONOGENES QEOS
I a,m not trying to "flog a dead horse" but I have
simply not felt that the question has been
answered from a strictly grammatical position of
(even a hypothetical) direct discourse.
Sorry to be a bother.
Thanks,
Jason Kerrigan
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george
gfsomsel
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