[B-Greek] 1 Cor 14:2b: Double-Duty OUDEIS?

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Sat Dec 2 14:51:24 EST 2006


I would question whether the OUDEIS in Lk 5.39 does double duty.  PIWN PALAIN is a participial phrase modifying OUDEIS which is the subject of QELEI.  I wouldn't try splitting a word into its components as OU + D' and hEIS as you seem to be suggesting.  This seems too reminiscent of etymological thinking.  In this case there is probably not much harm done, but it can lead to rather bizarre results.  I would say that the first of your options is closer to the Greek "No one WHO DRINKS old [aged] [wine] desires new.  I would render 1 Cor 14.2 as "The one who speaks with a tongue speaks not to men but rather to God . . ."  See BDAG s.v. ALLA #1.
 
george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: Scott Stocking <scottsox at conxxus.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Saturday, December 2, 2006 2:35:47 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] 1 Cor 14:2b: Double-Duty OUDEIS?


Thank you for your responses. I do understand about the different nuances of
MUSTHRION, but I wondered if something else might be going on there. I have
found what I think is an example of OUDEIS doing double duty in Luke 5:39:
OUDEIS PIWN PALAION QELEI NEON; LEGEI GAR "hO PALAIOS CRHSTOS ESTIN."

I guess my question would be, does the OU in OUDEIS modify the EIS or does
it in effect modify the verb, because its form (OU or MH) is dependent on
the verb? Is there any substantial difference in translating the phrase "No
one after drinking/who drinks old (wine) desires new" and "The one who
drinks old wine does not desire new"? So if I carry that over to 1 Cor 14:2,
given what was said about the subject of LALEI earlier in this thread (hO
LALWN), would the last part be "the one who speaks in tongues does not
understand" or "the one who hears what is spoken in tongues does not
understand" (which would be a different kind of tongues from Acts 2, where
the hearers did understand), or does it make a difference?

I guess my concern is that some who speak/pray in tongues claim they don't
need to understand what they are praying, but more than once in 1 Cor 12-14
Paul emphasizes the need for an interpretation so edification can take
place, whether personally or corporately. So is it okay that they don't
understand, or should all occurrences of tongues be interpreted? I favor the
latter, but I'm open right now.

Scott Stocking
Pastor, Congregational Christian Church
Adjunct Professor, Lincoln Christian College



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