[B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?
Anthony Buzzard
anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com
Fri Dec 15 13:52:56 EST 2006
Thank you for your helpful reply which seems to confirm that
"conceive" is very odd for gennao in Matt. 1:20. If Matt. 1:20 is the
only occurrence, its oddity is shown by the RV's margin telling us
that the Greek actually says "begotten". It seems that one can
rightly cry "mistranslation" in Matt. 1:20.
Anthony Buzzard
At 01:41 PM 12/15/2006, George F Somsel wrote:
>A quick check confirms what I had suspected, viz. that the primary
>translation for GENNAW is "to be born" used in reference to
>children. When used of the male's role it becomes "to beget" and is
>only rarely used with regard to the female prior to birth -- so
>rarely that Mt 1.20 is the only passage I find where this is the
>case. There is, however, one passage (Gal 4.24) where GENNAW is
>used regarding the female, but there it is apparently conceived (pun
>intended) not to reference the period during pregnancy but
>subsequent thereto and is therefore translated as "bearing
>children." I really know of no reason that it could not have been
>translated as "That which is begotten in her is because of the Holy
>Spirit." LSJ likewise notes that this is largely used regarding the father.
>
>george
>gfsomsel
>_________
>
>
>----- Original Message ----
>From: Anthony Buzzard <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com>
>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Sent: Friday, December 15, 2006 12:27:58 PM
>Subject: [B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?
>
>In Matt. 1:20 TO GENNETHEN is rendered generally as "what is conceived in her"
>Can anyone comment on that translation? Is not GENNAO really a
>begetting here, the action of the father? Is GENNAO elsewhere ever
>translated "conceive"?
>Anthony Buzzard
>
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Anthony Buzzard
www.restorationfellowship.org
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