[B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?
Anthony Buzzard
anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com
Fri Dec 15 14:38:44 EST 2006
George, this is rather fascinating. The begetting of the Son has a
lot of theological freight of course, and I suspect some bias here in
the translations. It is quite interesting that the RV actually
corrects itself, so to speak, in the margin. I had not known that
until today: just happened to glance at it.
We all believe in good clean definitions and I really doubt if gennao
has anything to do with the woman's part in the pre-birth process.
Clearly the father begets and the mother bears. There is a perfectly
good word for "conceive" in Greek of course. Thus gennethen really
ought to tell us that it is the Father at work here.(Matt. 1:20) (as
you say two sides of the coin, but the one side does not perhaps have
to be confused with the other).
Anthony Buzzard
At 02:05 PM 12/15/2006, George F Somsel wrote:
>I would hesitate to cry "mistranslation" since the two terms are the
>two sides of the one coin. I do think, however, that using
>"begotten" and referring that to the Holy Spirit would have been
>preferable. Of course, there is a history of translation here which
>seems to have determined that "conceived" SHALL be used. After all,
>would not millions of people think something was wrong if suddenly
>they heard "that which is begotten in her . . ." rather than
>"conceived"? We are creatures of habit.
>
> :-)
>
>george
>gfsomsel
>_________
>
>
>----- Original Message ----
>From: Anthony Buzzard <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com>
>To: George F Somsel <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Sent: Friday, December 15, 2006 1:52:56 PM
>Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?
>
>Thank you for your helpful reply which seems to confirm that
>"conceive" is very odd for gennao in Matt. 1:20. If Matt. 1:20 is
>the only occurrence, its oddity is shown by the RV's margin telling
>us that the Greek actually says "begotten". It seems that one can
>rightly cry "mistranslation" in Matt. 1:20.
>
>Anthony Buzzard
>
>
>
>At 01:41 PM 12/15/2006, George F Somsel wrote:
>>A quick check confirms what I had suspected, viz. that the primary
>>translation for GENNAW is "to be born" used in reference to
>>children. When used of the male's role it becomes "to beget" and
>>is only rarely used with regard to the female prior to birth -- so
>>rarely that Mt 1.20 is the only passage I find where this is the
>>case. There is, however, one passage (Gal 4.24) where GENNAW is
>>used regarding the female, but there it is apparently conceived
>>(pun intended) not to reference the period during pregnancy but
>>subsequent thereto and is therefore translated as "bearing
>>children." I really know of no reason that it could not have been
>>translated as "That which is begotten in her is because of the Holy
>>Spirit." LSJ likewise notes that this is largely used regarding the father.
>>
>>george
>>gfsomsel
>>_________
>>
>>
>>----- Original Message ----
>>From: Anthony Buzzard <anthonybuzzard at mindspring.com>
>>To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>Sent: Friday, December 15, 2006 12:27:58 PM
>>Subject: [B-Greek] Matt 1:20 to gennethen: Beget or conceive?
>>
>>In Matt. 1:20 TO GENNETHEN is rendered generally as "what is
>>conceived in her"
>>Can anyone comment on that translation? Is not GENNAO really a
>>begetting here, the action of the father? Is GENNAO elsewhere ever
>>translated "conceive"?
>>Anthony Buzzard
>>
>>---
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>Anthony Buzzard
>
>
>
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Anthony Buzzard
www.restorationfellowship.org
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