[B-Greek] Question about the semitic vocative

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Tue Dec 19 11:51:12 EST 2006


I tend to question that this is a case of Semitic influence.  Even BDF which does subscribe to the view that it was a "Semitic vocative" notes that this tendency is present all the way back to Homer.  I would therefore tend to think that this was an internal development of the Greek which certainly would not have been discouraged by Semitic usage.  BDF § 147 also notes that 

"In the NT this is the case (1) generally with adjectives used alone or without a substantive where the vocative is clear; (2) with additions of all kinds to the vocative (Attic SU hO PRESBUTATOS, PROCENE KAI hOI ALLOI), especially with participles (§412(5)) which hardly ever form the vocative. (3) Attic used the nominative (with article) with simple substantives only in addressing inferiors, who were, so to speak, thereby addressed in the 3rd person (Aristoph., Ra. 521 hO PAIS, AKOLOUQEI)." 

Blass, F., Debrunner, A., & Funk, R. W. (1961). A Greek grammar of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (81). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.

 
george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: Octavio Rodriguez <octaviors at gmail.com>
To: B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Tuesday, December 19, 2006 11:24:38 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Question about the semitic vocative


I have a question about the difference of a vocative such as KURIE and a
vocative such as hO KURIOS.

I have read that the first belongs to the ancient greek, and  the second is
an influence of the the Hebrew where the article change the nominative to a
vocative.
Thus, the article here would be the signal for the vocative. Am i right?.
For example in John 20:28 we reads  hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO QEOS MOU, which
clearly is a semitic vocative due to the article.

However some people who knew greek  grammar  seemed not to see the article
for this function, for example Cyril of Alexandria (four century)) who
seemed to know grammar well, said about John 20:28:


"Observe, too, that when he says *My Lord and my God, *he uses the article to
show that there was One Lord and One God. For he does not say without the
qualification of the article, KURIOS MOU KAI QEOS MOU*, *to prevent any one
from imagining that he called Him Lord or God as he might have done one of
ourselves or of the holy angels. " (Commentary on John book II)

The question is if Cyril was right about the grammar or may be he was
unaware about when we have a semitic vocative.

Regards

Octavio Rodriguez
---
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