[B-Greek] Col. 2:14--took it away and nailed it, or took it away after na...

RRedden604 at aol.com RRedden604 at aol.com
Thu Dec 21 14:43:19 EST 2006


Webb,
 
Antecedent action in not always expressed by the aorist participle (cf. Mt.  
2:8; 22:1; 27:4).  A case with the perfect is found in Acts 13:33.   Robertson 
notes, "Indeed this simultaneous action is in exact harmony with the  
punctiliar meaning of the aorist tense" (860).
 
I think the basic meaning of nailing something is punctiliar and a present  
participle would seem to me incongruous if not unnecessary.  Perhaps others  
may enlighten us on this.   I personally see the participle in  question as 
signifying "the manner in which the action of the main verb is  accomplished (D&M 
228), which they title The Modal Participle.
 
Rob Redden



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