[B-Greek] Col. 2:14--took it away and nailed it, or took it away after na...
RRedden604 at aol.com
RRedden604 at aol.com
Thu Dec 21 14:43:19 EST 2006
Webb,
Antecedent action in not always expressed by the aorist participle (cf. Mt.
2:8; 22:1; 27:4). A case with the perfect is found in Acts 13:33. Robertson
notes, "Indeed this simultaneous action is in exact harmony with the
punctiliar meaning of the aorist tense" (860).
I think the basic meaning of nailing something is punctiliar and a present
participle would seem to me incongruous if not unnecessary. Perhaps others
may enlighten us on this. I personally see the participle in question as
signifying "the manner in which the action of the main verb is accomplished (D&M
228), which they title The Modal Participle.
Rob Redden
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