[B-Greek] John 4:34
Richard Lindeman
oblchurch at msn.com
Fri Dec 22 12:50:49 EST 2006
George:
I stand corrected. In order for my questions to make sense it would need to be EME or ME instead of EMON. But with that hypothetical substitution I would like to ask the same questions.
Rich Lindeman
-----Original Message-----
From: "George F Somsel" <gfsomsel at yahoo.com>
To: "Richard Lindeman" <oblchurch at msn.com>; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: 12/22/2006 9:42 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] John 4:34
EMON is not actually the subject of hINA POIHSW. EMON is a possessive pronoun which qualifies BRWMA. Since BRWMA is a neuter, EMON is likewise neuter. It is therefore not accusative but rather nominative as the subject of the copulative verb ESTIN (remember that the nominative and accusative are the same for neuters). Also, there is no subject for hINA POIHSW. The clause introduced by hINA POIHSW . . . is rather a purpose clause which might be said to function as the predicate of the verb ESTIN.
george
gfsomsel
_________
----- Original Message ----
From: Richard Lindeman <oblchurch at msn.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Friday, December 22, 2006 12:28:30 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] John 4:34
John 4:34
LEGEI AUTOIS hO IHSOUS EMON BRWMA ESTIN hINA POIHSW TO QELHMA TOU PEMYANTOS ME KAI TELEIWSW AUTOU TO ERGON
"Jesus said to them, 'My food is to do the will of him who sent me and to accomplish his work.'"
I noticed that EMON is found in accusative masculine singular here and serves as the subject of hINA POIHSW and also as the subject of (hINA) TELEIWSW In this verse, is this an exact equivalent of an accusative subject for an infinitive? In other words, if John had written aorist infinitives here instead of hINA + aorist subjunctives, would that be good Greek? And would that change the function of EMON in any way or the meaning of the sentence?
Blessed Christmas to all!
Rich Lindeman
---
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