[B-Greek] Acts 11.20 (was Acts 20:11 - Jesus as Lord?)

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Wed Dec 27 11:01:59 EST 2006


The verb EUAGGELIZOMAI (or as it appears in the NT EUAGGELIZW) appears in the LXX and in secular Greek literature as well so I would not insist that someone translate it as "preach the gospel."  It was simply the bearing of good news ( e.g., "The Colts won the Superbowl!").  The structure you question would be a sort of double accusative.  We do see such in Paul.  In Rom 10.9 he has 

hOTI EAN hOMOLOGHSHiS EN TWi STOMATI SOU KURION IHSOUN KAI PISTEUSHiS EN THi KARDIAi SOU hOTI QEOS AUTON HGEIREN EK NEKRWN, SWQHSHi

Of course, I'm sure you never read or heard that verse.  :-)  

This could be translated "if you confess orally that Jesus is Lord" or "if you confess the Lord Jesus" with preference usually being given to the first.  The reason for this is most likely the fact that Caesar was proclaimed as lord so this functioned as a counter-claim.  I wouldn't therefore say that "Jesus as Lord" should be considered wrong, but the question is whether this is for the purpose of countering any imperial claim.  Probably it is not so "the Lord Jesus" would most likely be preferable.  BTW:  "Jesus AS Lord" is most likely simply a development of "Jesus IS Lord" with the copula being supplied.
 
george
gfsomsel
_________



----- Original Message ----
From: Luke Hartman <lists at mrturtle.com>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Wednesday, December 27, 2006 10:30:58 AM
Subject: [B-Greek] Acts 20:11 - Jesus as Lord?


I was reading "Between Jesus and Paul" by Martin Hengel, and he  
translated the end of the verse (or at least the one translating his  
work into English) 'also spoke to the Greeks and proclaimed Jesus as  
Kyrios'

HSAN DE TINES EX AUTWN ANDRES KUPRIOI KAI KURHNAIOI hOITINES ELQONTES  
EIS ANTIOCEIAN ELALOUN KAI PROS TOUS hELLHNISTAS EUAGGELIZOMENOI TON  
KURION IHSOUN

The English version I checked (and my limited Greek knowledge) would  
translate "Preaching/proclaiming/'goodnewsing' the Lord Jesus." Is  
there any justification for Hengel's translation or does it really  
make a difference?

Thanks,

luke hartman
midwest city, ok
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